I have a doubt. Every particle ID is associated with a name. So for example, $d$ quark has an ID 1. This is based on the montecarlo scheme. However, as explained in the last meeting, every particle has its antiparticle. So $d$ quark with ID 1, has the antiquark $\bar{d}$ with ID = -1.
I understand this logic but don't know where it comes from. The cited paper shows the particles but not the antiparticles. In dmX, many particles have their equivalent antiparticle definition. I would like to know more about this because many newly incorporated particles lack their antiparticle.
I have a doubt. Every particle ID is associated with a name. So for example,$d$ quark has an ID 1. This is based on the montecarlo scheme. However, as explained in the last meeting, every particle has its antiparticle. So $d$ quark with ID 1, has the antiquark $\bar{d}$ with ID = -1.
I understand this logic but don't know where it comes from. The cited paper shows the particles but not the antiparticles. In dmX, many particles have their equivalent antiparticle definition. I would like to know more about this because many newly incorporated particles lack their antiparticle.